DSM-IV-R code: 302.72-Female Sexual Arousal Disorder.

Ya, and many women do not feel the need for treatment. But, neither do most alcoholics. Yet, both behaviors have an impact on those who love them.

I have a professional interest in couples counseling. While I don't often agree with Dr. Pies' viewpoints, he raises an interesting issue in the linked article.  From a couples counseling viewpoint, it may be a moot point whether lack of desire on the part of the woman is a "disorder", since it will in many cases be followed by the man seeking sex outside of the marriage, and this will often lead to problems in the relationship, and it is the problems caused by this (probably feelings of betrayal) that the counselor will be focusing on.

But as the issue of the woman's lack of desire is raised, perhaps by the husband in justifying his actions, the issue of whether the woman has a disorder may arise.  (And of course, there may medical or other causes for the disinterest in sex).  As Dr. Pies points out, is this even a disorder?  Does the woman want treatment?  Many women might not want treatment, but many others may want it.

 

And it is caused by any of the following and more ...

1) menopause. (Though not in all cases, thankfully!)
2) Security that hubby is taken off the market (A man who is already caught is automatically less attractive after a period of time. Her sex drive returns when the possibility of a new man arises.)
3) Her other emotional needs not being met
4) Cultural bombardment erroneously convincing her that hubby is no good.

as a woman, i've always deeply resented the notion that a lack of sexual arousal, sexual desire, or even an ability to orgasm, indicates some dysfunction in desperate need of repair. these things are only "disorders" if they are the cause of unhappiness and stress to the female in question. they could possibly cause some problems within a serious relationship, but that is a compatibility issue not a dysfunction. and believe it or not, women can actually have very satisfying sex lives...both for themselves AND their partner, without having a high sex drive or level of arousal...women are complex (and fortunate) that way.

the following is a definition of female sexual dysfunction from the Mayo clinic...reiterating that it is only a problem, if it is actually a problem:

http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/female-sexual-dysfunction/ds00701

from treating couples or offering services surrounding sexual disorders of any kind.

After all are not you a contradiction in terms as a monger of hookers? Just saying. rofl

Wife was subjected to severe psychosexual trauma.

It's my hope that once all the professionals help her put that behind her and stuff, all will be normal.

It's usually called Married sex.. It't not that we don't want it. We just don't want it with you.. not that your bad or we don't love you. its just married sex.. yes, even women want a new menu from time to time they typically just don't admit it....

I miss read it as being an and/or.

"problem" when the clinician is not having to bill insurance. Then, it must become a "disorder" if the clinician or the client wishes to be reimbursed. It's that simple.

The DSM4 code you are referring to (302.72) has the inability to lubricate as the main symptomatic criteria, with a lack of swelling of the external genitalia also usually present.

Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (coded 302.71) is the disorder which Dr. Pies was referring to, and which I was talking about.  This is characterized by a lack of desire for sexual activity.

Thanks for your well-expressed input.

There are two diagnostic criteria for Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder. The first is a deficiency or absence of sexual fantasies or desire for sexual activity. The second is that this must cause distress to the individual woman or interpersonal difficulty. The Mayo Clinic information is intended for the health care consumer rather than aimed at clinicians. However, it does a good job of paraphrasing the essential information.

You are right to say that an important criteria is whether or not the woman is experiencing distress. If she is not, the diagnostic criteria may not be met, hence no disorder. But the interesting part is the second part, which refers to interpersonal relationship difficulties. As it stands now, a woman who feels no personal distress at her lack of desire, but is experiencing relationship difficulties because of this lack of desire, still meets the diagnostic criteria, and would be diagnosed as having Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder. This is what Dr. Pies and those he quotes are talking about. Some clinicians would agree with you that that is a compatibilty issue and not a disorder.

This whole area is heavily loaded for many people, and for this reason many clinicians are inclined, when working with clients, to refer to sexual disorders as "problems" rather than disorders, since the word "disorder" is upsetting to the client.

A woman who desires sex with men other than her husband would never be given the diagnosis of
Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder by a clinician.

-- Modified on 9/17/2010 11:52:43 AM