It's only money laundering to pathetic snow flake dems who have nothing left in their suffering of TDS.
Dems are just grasping at straws and know it.
Posted By: marikod
Re: Um…no. Merely selling property at an inflated price is not “evidence of money laundering,”
and that is all you really have here, even if we assume that the price was unduly inflated. And that is a big "if."
Given that Trump bought at a bankrupty auction and the buyer sold one of the three parcels for 37 million, the second parcel for 34 million, and still owns the third parcel, it is pretty obvious that (1) demolishing the old mansion to sell in parcels was a smart business move, and (2) the price was not inflated- the buyer may even make a profit depending on the price for the third parcel.
And for money laundering to stick, the money would have to be dirty and Trump would have to know this. Zero evidence of that. So you don’t even open the door to ML and defame someone, until you evidence of these key facts.
Finally, any money laundering that occurred in 2004 is beyond the scope of Mueller’s mandate as ii could not possibly have anything to do with Russian ties to the 2016 campaign, any matters arising out of that investigation, any part of the Comey FBI investigation, or any prosecutable crime – the statute of limitations has long run on ML.
Just a Democratic hit job, a subject for Laffy's daily "Trump is bad" posts, and another reason to fire Rod Rosenstein for writing the special counsel appointment vague enough that Mueller can exploit the ambiguity and waste taxpayer money on something that happened in 2004.