I have a situation and I am unsure on how to proceed, so a little mind-share would be greatly appreciated.
Seeing as how this involves the treatment/proceedures with a client, I would also appreciate a little male perspective.
I am fully aware I could (should?) post this in the Ladie's area, however, I wouldn't be getting any feedback from the gentlemen, right?
Situation at hand:
Client fills out appointment/screening.
I run the info, come to find out Mr. Client has a history of NCNS.
I inform Mr. Client that in order to book a session I will require a deposit.
(The deposit is enough to cover the incall & a smidge extra, but not the total cost of said session. More of a retainer deposit.)
He sent the deposit.
So... countdown to appointment day... within the 24 hour window, I receive an email with... a cancellation.
No reschedule is made at that exact time. (He claimed he was sick, I just wished him a speedy recovery!)
Now.... some weeks (months? losing track of time...) he has emailed again to seek another appointment booking.
NOW.... so that I have full disclosure...
I do not have a posted cancellation fee (up to this point, I have a pretty consistent client base who doesn't do so... until recent) and no posted deposit info, other than "Travel Deposit."
Should I ask for another deposit?
(I am still pondering the "risk assessment" of another "cancellation.")
Should I consider the first deposit forfeit in full?
Should I give him any credit from the last one? Partial? Full? None?
(No I didn't save it, lmao!)
This is the part of this job that gives me a headache....
But I want to be FAIR, so I am asking!
Any advice or perspective is greatly appreciated!
Foxy
P.S. Yes, I see the need NOW to have these guidelines in place in writing on the ol' website....
Guess that will be in the works now as well...
-- Modified on 10/9/2015 8:00:34 AM