It does not matter what people "see through" but what they
can PROVE. People cannot be convicted based on what
someone SUSPECTS. So I don't understand the other people's
posts here (and I am a lawyer).
The main problem is that the cops can get up and "testi-lie"
-- embellish. So they can claim all kinds of things on
the witness stand that did not actually happen.
Cops? Lying on the witness stand? You better believe it.
Now, some of them may "remember" things the way they want
to remember them. But the result is the same.
If I were a provider (if I were a woman) I would find a
way to tape record these conversations (at least the
opening conversations) without the guy knowing about it.
(Legitimate clients would freak out if they knew, and
you'd never get any more business.) That way if the police
officer "testi-lies" on the witness stand, you pull out
the tape recording, and Mr.-Dishonest-Cop is going to be
finding a new career mopping the floor at Taco Bell.
However, in general, the question you ask really depends
on how much it ACTUALLY unfolds the way you described.
If a woman sells something else (including a massage)
and then decides, because she likes the guy, he's so
handsome, he talks to her really nice, she's turned on,
that she wants to do something else, that's not illegal.
It helps if the first transaction is 100% complete
before the idea of doing anything else ever comes up.
But it would depend on how really CLEAR it was that
her deciding to get physical had nothing to do with
the money. For example, if she keeps saying that she
will not doing anything sexual for money, but she is
getting turned on by the guy because he is so hot,
sweet, talks to her nice, whatever, then it would be
legal.
However, if it looked like sex was IMPLIED to be part
of what he was buying all along, then she could still
be convicted. The offer of sex-for-money can be implied.
But a girl CANNOT be convicted for having sex with someone
that she happened to sell something else to.
However, a couple of points are raised by other posts:
If she is selling something worth 50 cents for $300,
then people will INFER that the sex was part of the
sale all along.
But if she sells something to any one and happens to
be a really friendly salesperson, there's nothing
wrong with that.
I mean suppose a girl sells Mercedes. Everyone is selling
for roughly the same price, some more expensive than
others. And suppose to make the sale, the girl is really
flirtatious and friendly with her customers?
Now, she cannot say or imply "if you buy a car I will
have sex with you."
But suppose AFTER a guy buys a car, she is so grateful
that she goes to bed with him. Who is he going to buy
his next car from?
Cars a bad example because you only buy one once every
several yeas. But that's the idea.
Can a provider get busted for a LE under cover if she never ask for money but instead she "SELLS" any given product to a customer.
After having perform the "SELL" (because it was the only thing she was trying to do) and get to know more her client she consent to have sex with her client, is there some way that any LE, Judge or Jury can say that it is an act of prostitution an take her to jail, or give her a fine, etc.
All they have to do is prove intent - that the intent here was to sell sex, NOT to sell a product and then say: oh, we hit it off so good I just had to have me that man.
Any judge will see right through the facade and pronounce those involved guilty.
Unless the cops, judge and jury are all complete idiots, none of them will believe the lady just happened to decide sex was a good way to get to know her customer, especially if the transaction took place in a bedroom, she was wearing lingerie, etc..
If you pay me $500 for this piece of useless crap, I will also give you two seats for the performance of whatever person I am trying to sell to you.
I think that in the eyes of most people, anybody could see through this.
It does not matter what people "see through" but what they
can PROVE. People cannot be convicted based on what
someone SUSPECTS. So I don't understand the other people's
posts here (and I am a lawyer).
The main problem is that the cops can get up and "testi-lie"
-- embellish. So they can claim all kinds of things on
the witness stand that did not actually happen.
Cops? Lying on the witness stand? You better believe it.
Now, some of them may "remember" things the way they want
to remember them. But the result is the same.
If I were a provider (if I were a woman) I would find a
way to tape record these conversations (at least the
opening conversations) without the guy knowing about it.
(Legitimate clients would freak out if they knew, and
you'd never get any more business.) That way if the police
officer "testi-lies" on the witness stand, you pull out
the tape recording, and Mr.-Dishonest-Cop is going to be
finding a new career mopping the floor at Taco Bell.
However, in general, the question you ask really depends
on how much it ACTUALLY unfolds the way you described.
If a woman sells something else (including a massage)
and then decides, because she likes the guy, he's so
handsome, he talks to her really nice, she's turned on,
that she wants to do something else, that's not illegal.
It helps if the first transaction is 100% complete
before the idea of doing anything else ever comes up.
But it would depend on how really CLEAR it was that
her deciding to get physical had nothing to do with
the money. For example, if she keeps saying that she
will not doing anything sexual for money, but she is
getting turned on by the guy because he is so hot,
sweet, talks to her nice, whatever, then it would be
legal.
However, if it looked like sex was IMPLIED to be part
of what he was buying all along, then she could still
be convicted. The offer of sex-for-money can be implied.
But a girl CANNOT be convicted for having sex with someone
that she happened to sell something else to.
However, a couple of points are raised by other posts:
If she is selling something worth 50 cents for $300,
then people will INFER that the sex was part of the
sale all along.
But if she sells something to any one and happens to
be a really friendly salesperson, there's nothing
wrong with that.
I mean suppose a girl sells Mercedes. Everyone is selling
for roughly the same price, some more expensive than
others. And suppose to make the sale, the girl is really
flirtatious and friendly with her customers?
Now, she cannot say or imply "if you buy a car I will
have sex with you."
But suppose AFTER a guy buys a car, she is so grateful
that she goes to bed with him. Who is he going to buy
his next car from?
Cars a bad example because you only buy one once every
several yeas. But that's the idea.